UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | December 01 to December 07, 2024 | UPSC Current Affairs News

1. It is a 12th-century mosque commissioned by Qutbuddin Aibak

2. The iconic screen wall that forms the mosque’s facade, with its seven corbelled arches, was commissioned by Ibrahim Khan Lodi.

3. It is the oldest surviving monument in Punjab.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

Explanation

— An Ajmer court granted a plea to examine the venerated Dargah Sharif, reigniting similar demands for the historic Adhai Din Ka Jhonpra.

— “There is evidence that a Sanskrit college and temple existed at the Jhonpra. “The invaders demolished it,” Ajmer deputy mayor Neeraj Jain stated in a statement.

— Qutbuddin Aibak, a slave-turned-general in the Ghurid army, commissioned the Ajmer mosque after establishing the Mamluk Dynasty in 1206 to inaugurate the Delhi Sultanate. Qutabuddin commissioned it following Muhammad of Ghor’s victory over Prithviraj III (also known as Prithviraj Chauhan) at the Second Battle of Tarain. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— The Afghan invasion moved on to attack the Chauhan dynasty’s capital, Ajmer (then known as Ajaymeru). Ajmer-based jurist Har Bilas Sarda wrote in Ajmer: Historical And Descriptive (1911) that during his short stay in the city, Muhammad of Ghor “destroyed the pillars and foundations of the idol temples” and “dismantled” Visaldeva’s College, “a portion of it converted into a mosque” known today as Adhai Din Ka Jhonpra. Sarda’s book is the key historical source used by the petitioners in the Dargah Sharif survey petition.

— The mosque’s central mihrab has an inscription indicating that it was completed in 1199, while the roof of a second dome from the north shows a date of 1200. This makes it Ajmer’s oldest surviving landmark and the second oldest constructed mosque in North India, trailing only Delhi’s Quwwat ul Islam mosque. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

— Iltutmish, Qutabuddin’s son-in-law and third Sultan of Delhi, commissioned and finished the distinctive screen wall that forms the mosque’s facade, with its seven corbelled arches, in 1213. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 2

The Polavaram multipurpose project was in the news recently. It is located in:

(a) Odisha

(b) Madhya Pradesh

(c) Kerala

(d) Andhra Pradesh

Explanation

— The Naveen Patnaik-led Biju Janata Dal (BJD) has revived its protest against the Polavaram multipurpose project in Andhra Pradesh, claiming that it will sink a huge amount of tribal land in Malkangiri, Odisha.

— The project is an interstate project on the Godavari River that was conceived in 1980 in response to the Godavari Water Disputes Tribunal’s (GWDT) recommendations. On April 2, 1980, Andhra Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, and Odisha signed an agreement to complete construction of the project, which has a full reservoir level of 150 feet and a spillway discharging capacity of 36 lakh cusecs.

— The Andhra Pradesh State Reorganisation Act (APRA) of 2014 proclaimed the project a national project, requiring the Union government to execute it and secure all necessary permissions under environmental, forest, rehabilitation, and resettlement regulations.

— In 2016, it was determined that the Centre will cover 100% of the remaining cost of the project’s irrigation component exclusively for the period beginning April 1, 2014.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 3

Consider the following pairs with reference to the categorisation of cyclones on wind speed:

Severe cyclonic storm	more than 222 kmph
Low pressure	less than 31 kmph
Deep depression	31-49 kmph

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pair

(c) All three pairs

(d) None of the pairs

Explanation

— Cyclone Fengal, which made landfall near Puducherry on November 30, was a low-intensity storm as it maintained a wind speed of about 75-95 kmph. However, the cyclone left a trail of destruction in its wake.

— The India Meteorological Department (IMD) classifies cyclones depending on their associated wind speeds. There are six categories: low pressure (< 31 kmph), depression (31-49 kmph), deep depression (50-61 kmph), cyclonic storm (62-88 kmph), severe cyclonic storm (89-117 kmph), extremely severe cyclonic storm (118-221 kmph), and super cyclone (&gt; 222 kmph).

— Several catastrophic storms have hit India’s coasts over the years, causing widespread devastation. The associated highest wind speeds reached 260 kmph (Odisha super cyclone, October 1999), 215 kmph (Cyclone Phailin, May 2013), and 185 kmph (Cyclone Amphan, May 2020). In comparison to many previous storms, Cyclone Fengal was a low-intensity storm.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 4

With reference to the Oilfields (Regulation and Development) Amendment Bill, 2024, consider the following statements:

1. It encourages domestic production of petroleum and other mineral oils, along with private investment in these sectors to reduce import dependence.

2. The Bill amends the Oilfields (Regulation and Development) Act of 1948.

3. The Bill defines mineral oils as “any naturally occurring hydrocarbon, whether in the form of natural gas or in a liquid, viscous or solid form.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Explanation

— To encourage domestic production of petroleum and other mineral oils, along with private investment in these sectors to reduce import dependence, the Rajya Sabha passed the Oilfields (Regulation and Development) Amendment Bill, 2024. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— The bill changes the Oilfields (Regulation and Development) Act of 1948. It distinguishes between the law governing “minerals” mining, as defined in the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act of 1957, and the Oilfields Act. If ratified by Parliament, the Oilfields Act in its revised version would only govern petroleum and other “mineral oil” production. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— According to Minister of Petroleum and Natural Gas Hardeep Singh Puri in the Statement of Objects and Reasons in Support of the Oilfields Bill, the Oilfields Act was formerly known as the Mines and Minerals (Regulation and Development) Act of 1948. This sole statute governed and regulated oilfields, mines, and minerals until 1957, when the current Mines and Minerals Act was enacted.

— To clarify the scope of the two Acts, the 1948 legislation was renamed the Oilfields (Regulation and Development) Act, 1948, and its text was changed to replace references to “minerals” with “mineral oils”. However, the Act does not define “mineral oil,” which is an omission that the current Oilfields Bill seeks to address.

— The Bill defines mineral oils as “any naturally occurring hydrocarbon, whether in the form of natural gas or in a liquid, viscous, or solid form, or a mixture thereof” and provides a comprehensive list of resources that would come under this definition (including crude oil, natural gas, and petroleum). Hence, statement 3 is correct.

— However, it clarifies that the definition will not include “coal, lignite and helium occurring in association with petroleum or coal or shale”, likely because regulation of coal and lignite is governed by the Mines and Minerals Act.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 5

With reference to the Production-Linked Incentive (PLI) schemes, consider the following statements:

1. PLI schemes are crucial for India to scale up the domestic manufacturing base and to create lakhs of direct and indirect jobs.

2. If employment generation is used as a metric, all the 14 Production-Linked Incentive (PLI) schemes are relatively in the slow lane.

3. It does not include the aviation sector.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

— If employment generation is the metric, six of the 14 Production-Linked Incentive (PLI) programs, including textiles, solar modules, IT hardware, autos, advanced chemical cells (ACC), and speciality steel, are moving slowly. Others, such as food processing and mobile phone manufacturing, look to be on course to fulfil the benchmarks established when the initiatives were first introduced. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

— The development of the PLI initiative, which includes 14 sectors, and the lessons learnt from each, has spurred discussions about tweaking the formats of some to maximise demonstrable achievements, renewing others, and increasing the outlay in others. The government sees PLI initiatives as critical for India on two fronts: first, to leverage public investment to scale up the domestic manufacturing base, therefore increasing India’s contribution to global supply chains; and second, to create lakhs of direct and indirect jobs. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— PLI schemes include Mobile Manufacturing and Specified Electronic Components, Critical Key Starting Materials/Drug Intermediaries & Active Pharmaceutical Ingredients, Manufacturing of Medical Devices, Automobiles and Auto Components, Pharmaceuticals Drugs, Specialty Steel, Telecom & Networking Products, Electronic/Technology Products, White Goods (ACs and LEDs), Food Products, Textile Products: MMF segment and technical textiles, High efficiency solar PV modules, Advanced Chemistry Cell (ACC) Battery and Drones and Drone Components.

— It does not include the aviation sector. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 6

With reference to the Marburg virus disease (MVD), consider the following statements:

1. It belongs to the filovirus family.

2. The first recognised MVD outbreak occurred in Ghana.

3. There are no vaccines for MVD.

4. It is also called the “bleeding eye virus”.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4

(c) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4

Explanation

— As of November 29, the Ministry of Health in Rwanda reported that an epidemic of Marburg virus disease (MVD) has killed at least 15 people and infected at least 66 others.

— MVD, sometimes known as the “bleeding eye virus,” is one of the worst diseases capable of infecting humans. Case mortality rates in previous outbreaks ranged from 24% to 88%, depending on the virus type and case care. The first incidence in Rwanda this year was recorded in September. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

— Marburg is a filovirus, just like Ebola. Both infections are clinically identical and, while rare, can generate high-fatality epidemics. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— The first recognised MVD outbreak occurred in Marburg, Germany, in 1967. Following that, successive outbreaks have largely been recorded throughout Africa, most recently in Tanzania, Ghana, and now Rwanda. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

— The World Health Organisation has listed MVD as one of the infections that pose the greatest hazard to public health and for which no suitable treatments or vaccinations exist. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

— Initially, human MVD infections were induced by long-term exposure to mines or caves inhabited by Rousettus bat colonies, particularly the Egyptian fruit bat (Rousettus aegyptiacus).

— However, the World Health Organisation (WHO) reports that the virus spreads through human-to-human contact, both directly (via contact with infected people’s blood and bodily fluids) and indirectly (via contaminated surfaces and materials such as bedding, clothing, and so on).

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 7

Which of the following forces are included in the Central Armed Police Forces (CAPFs)?

1. Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB)

2. Border Security Force (BSF)

3. National Security Guard (NSG)

4. Ladakh Scouts

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

— Minister of State for Home Affairs Nityanand Rai addressed the Lok Sabha that the number of women in the Central Armed Police Forces (CAPFs) has nearly tripled in the ten years between 2014 and 2024.

— The Union Home Ministry oversees the CAPFs, which comprise seven paramilitary forces: the Assam Rifles, Border Security Force (BSF), Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP), Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB), Central Industrial Security Force (CISF), Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF), and the National Security Guard (NSG) special task force.

— It does not include Ladakh Scouts.

— Women account for 4.4% of the 9.48 lakh-strong CAPFs, which include the Assam Rifles. Rai told the Lok Sabha that the CISF, which guards public areas such as airports, the Delhi Metro, and significant government buildings such as the Parliament Complex, has the greatest female presence – 7.02% of the entire force strength of approximately 1.51 lakh.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 8

Consider the following statements:

Statement 1: Land degradation is undermining Earth’s capacity to sustain humanity, and failure to reverse it will pose challenges for future generations.

Statement 2: A million sq km of land is degraded yearly, with an estimated 15 million sq km already impacted.

Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct.

(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is incorrect.

Explanation

— Land degradation is undermining Earth’s capacity to sustain humanity, and failure to reverse it will pose challenges for generations to come, a new United Nations report found. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— Every year, a million square kilometres of land are degraded, with an estimated 15 million square kilometres already affected — more than the entire continent of Antarctica — by land degradation, according to the report Stepping Back from the Precipice: Transforming Land Management to Stay Within Planetary Boundaries. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— The analysis was conducted by the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD), a legally mandated framework for addressing desertification and drought effects, in partnership with Germany’s Potsdam Institute for Climate Impact Research. It was released on Monday, one day before the 16th session of the United Nations Convention on Climate Change (COP16) opened in Riyadh, Saudi Arabia.

— The UN Convention on Climate Change defines land degradation as “the reduction or loss of the biological or economic productivity and complexity of rainfed cropland, irrigated cropland, or range, pasture, forest and woodlands resulting from a combination of pressures, including land use and management practices” .

— Land degradation has a negative impact on both humans and ecosystems worldwide. For example, it increases the risk of malnutrition by lowering the quality and quantity of food produced. It promotes the spread of water- and food-borne diseases caused by poor hygiene and a lack of clean water. Soil erosion can lead to respiratory disorders.

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 9

With reference to the cash reserve ratio (CRR), consider the following statements:

1. It is the percentage of a bank’s total deposits that it is required to maintain in liquid cash with the RBI as a reserve.

2. Recently, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) slashed the cash reserve ratio (CRR) by 50 basis points (bps) to boost liquidity in the financial system.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) slashed the cash reserve ratio (CRR) by 50 basis points (bps) to 4% from 4.5% in a bid to boost liquidity in the financial system. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— CRR is the percentage of a bank’s total deposits that it is required to maintain in liquid cash with the RBI as a reserve. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— The decision to decrease the CRR by 50 basis points will free up Rs 1.16 lakh crore in the banking system, increasing banks’ lendable resources.

— The liquidity in the banking system has tightened as a result of the RBI’s efforts to stabilise the currency. The RBI has sold a lot of dollars, which has impacted overall system liquidity. Liquidity would tighten further in December due to outflows connected to advance tax, goods and services tax (GST), and credit demand at the end of the quarter.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 10

With reference to B.R. Ambedkar, consider the following statements:

1. He is credited with awakening the Dalit consciousness which started with the Mahad Satyagraha of 1927.

2. His doctoral thesis was published as “The Problem of the Rupee”.

3. He took oath as the first Law Minister of independent India.

4. The book “Federation Versus Freedom” was written by him.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Explanation

— Prime Minister Narendra Modi paid tributes to the main architect of the Constitution, B R Ambedkar, on his death anniversary, saying his tireless fight for equality and human dignity continues to inspire generations.

— “On Mahaparinirvan Diwas, we bow to Dr Babasaheb Ambedkar, the architect of our Constitution and a beacon of social justice,” Modi told X.

— Dr. Ambedkar returned to London in 1920 to complete his study, thanks to financial aid from Chatrapati Shahuji Maharaj of Kolhapur, a personal loan from a friend, and savings from his time in India. He was admitted to the bar in 1922 and began practicing as a barrister-at-law. He also obtained his M.S.c. and D.S.c. at the LSE. “The Problem of the Rupee” was his doctoral thesis, which was eventually published. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— But Babasaheb’s most crucial achievement was to galvanise the Dalit emancipation movement. He is credited for raising Dalit consciousness, which fuelled the community’s quest for political power. It all began with the Mahad Satyagraha of 1927, the first big collective protest of the so-called “untouchables” headed by Ambedkar. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— In 1946, he was elected to the Constituent Assembly of India. He took his oath as independent India’s first Law Minister on August 15, 1947. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

— He wrote several publications, including Castes in India: Their Mechanism, Genesis and Development, Federation Versus Freedom, Janta (monthly), The Problem of the Rupee: Its Origin and Solution, Pakistan or Partition of India, State and Minorities, and so on. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

(Other Source: main.sci.gov.in)

QUESTION 11

Aleppo, Hama, Homs and Daraa are places in the news. Where are they located?

(a) Saudi Arabia

(b) Syria

(c) Israel

(d) Iran

Explanation

— The war in Syria continued to escalate Saturday as rebel forces said they had seized the southern city of Daraa, near Jordan, taking control over the fourth key Syrian territory in the past week.

— In the first offensive since 2020, when rebel groups were pushed to the far north of the country, militants led by the group Hayat Tahrir al-Sham (HTS) have taken control of Aleppo, Hama and Homs, destabilising the political landscape of Syria.

— The surprise offensive has prompted concern from across borders, including Iran, which has started evacuating its citizens and officials from the war-torn region.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 12

‘Turner Prize’, recently seen in news is associated with which field:

(a) Social work

(b) Science and Technology

(c) Art

(d) Literature

Explanation

— The Turner Prize, considered among the most prestigious awards in the art world, went to Indian-origin artist Jasleen Kaur on Wednesday (December 4), for an exhibit that pays tribute to her family history of migration to Scotland.

— Kaur’s exhibit was praised by the jury for “(weaving) together the personal, political and spiritual”. In her acceptance speech, she called for a ceasefire in Gaza.

— Associated with the UK’s Tate Gallery, the Turner Prize has a long history of controversy and is a huge affair in British culture, getting significant media attention every year.

What is the Turner Prize?

— The prize is named after English painter JMW Turner (1775-1851), known for his paintings of sceneries, the ocean and dramatic depictions of light. Many of his works show red and yellow hues of sunsets in great detail.

— Tate’s website notes, “Described as the ‘father of modern art,’ Turner shocked with his unique brushwork and use of colour. His portrayals of the modern world were unlike any seen before. As one of the country’s greatest painters, he fittingly lends his name to the contemporary Turner Prize.” Tate also houses the largest collection of Turner’s works.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 13

Which of the following pairs are not correctly matched?

1. Phishing: Fraudulent emails or fake websites impersonate legitimate entities like banks, insurance firms, or government departments to steal information.

2. Smishing: Phone calls from fraudsters pretending to be officials, such as bank representatives, trick victims into revealing OTPs or account details.

3. Vishing: Scam messages impersonate organisations like Aadhaar services or digital wallets, urging users to click on harmful links.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 3 only

Explanation

Understanding phishing, smishing, and vishing attacks

— All three are cyber attack attempts with the same motive––stealing personal information including credit card numbers and PINs, passwords to bank accounts, one-time passwords on the phone etc., but with different approaches.

— Phishing: Fraudulent emails or fake websites impersonate legitimate entities like banks, insurance firms, or government departments to steal information. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— Smishing: Scam messages impersonate organisations like Aadhaar services or digital wallets, urging users to click on harmful links. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

— Vishing: Phone calls from fraudsters pretending to be officials, such as bank representatives, trick victims into revealing OTPs or account details. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

— “India’s massive and diverse internet user base makes the country a prime target for such scams,” said Dr Chiranjiv Roy, global head of data science, machine learning and applied generative AI at C5i.ai. He also said, “The increasing adoption of digital payment platforms only multiplies the risks.”

— These complaints tend to almost double every year due to the increasing use of the internet and mobile phones and low awareness about cyber crimes,” said Lohit Matani, Deputy Commissioner of Police (Cyber), Nagpur.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 14

With reference to tiger conservation in India, consider the following statements:

1. The initial phase of Project Tiger included nine tiger reserves starting first as Simlipal Tiger Reserve.

2. It is the state government that identifies a suitable area for a tiger reserve based on the presence of a viable tiger population and suitable habitat.

3. As top predators in an ecosystem, tigers play an essential role in regulating and perpetuating ecological processes and therefore ensuring the conservation of this apex carnivore ensures the health of forest ecosystems, the biodiversity they represent, and the security of water and climate.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation

— On December 2, India got its 57th tiger reserve in Madhya Pradesh’s Ratapani Wildlife Sanctuary, after receiving in-principle approval from the Union Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change.

Why and when did the first tiger reserves come up in India?

— In the mid-20th century, India’s tiger population rapidly declined due to hunting, habitat loss, and other human activities. Following Indian independence in 1947, this decline became even more pronounced. In the first attempt to ensure the big cats were not poached, the Indian Government banned the export of wild cat skins, including of tigers, in 1969.

— Extending further protection, the Indian Board for Wild Life (IBWL) formed an 11-member task force to devise a comprehensive conservation strategy, marking the inception of Project Tiger. The task force submitted its final report in August 1972, recommending that eight tiger forests across India be included in the project. On April 1, 1973, Project Tiger was officially launched at the Corbett Tiger Reserve.

— The initial phase included nine tiger reserves: Corbett (Uttarakhand), Palamau (Jharkhand), Similipal (Orissa), Sundarbans (West Bengal), Manas (Assam), Ranthambhore (Rajasthan), Kanha (Madhya Pradesh), Melghat (Maharashtra) and Bandipur (Karnataka). Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

How is a tiger reserve created?

— The state government identifies a suitable area for a tiger reserve based on the presence of a viable tiger population and suitable habitat. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— Ecological assessments, including studies on prey base, vegetation, and the area’s potential to support tigers, are then conducted. The state prepares a detailed proposal, including maps, ecological studies, and management plans.

— Finally, a proposal is submitted to the NTCA, which studies and approves it and submits it to the Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change for further consideration.

— Following this, the state government issues a preliminary notification under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, declaring the identified area as a tiger reserve. After addressing any objections or modifications, the state issues a final notification under Section 38V of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, formalising the reserve.

— The reserve is brought under the Project Tiger initiative, entitling it to central funding and technical support for conservation activities. A detailed management plan is developed, focusing on habitat improvement, anti-poaching measures, and community participation. The NTCA conducts regular monitoring and evaluation.

— As per section 38W of the Act, once the notification comes “no State Government shall de-notify a tiger reserve, except in public interest with the approval of the Tiger Conservation Authority and the National Board for Wild Life”.

— According to wildlife researchers, as top predators in an ecosystem, tigers play an essential role in regulating and perpetuating ecological processes. Ensuring the conservation of this apex carnivore ensures the health of forest ecosystems, the biodiversity they represent, and the security of water and climate. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

— Tigers inhabit a wide range of habitats in India, including high mountains, mangrove swamps, tall grasslands, dry and damp deciduous forests, and evergreen and shola forest systems. “Since there are many resources at the disposal of Project Tiger and the national interest behind this project the protection enacted on tigers has an umbrella effect that extends to other sub-species,” said an NTCA official.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 15

With reference to the Hornbill Festival, consider the following statements:

1. It is organised by the Nagaland government as the state’s largest public event – started in 2000 as an annual tradition, it aims to boost tourism by showcasing Naga heritage and culture, and thus act as a unifying force within the state.

2. The Hornbill Festival holds a special place within the larger public debate on liquor prohibition in the state.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— The 25th edition of Nagaland’s famed Hornbill Festival is now underway amidst a wide public debate on relaxing the 35-year-old liquor prohibition law for the duration of the festival.

— Tourism Minister Temjen Imna Along said that the government has granted tourists and stall owners permission to use Indian-made Foreign Liquor (IMFL) within the festival venue, the Kisama Heritage Village.

— This move has been decried by influential church bodies, who have long contested the effort to make alcohol, including traditional rice beer, publicly available at the state’s largest gathering.

— Lending the situation complexity is the state government’s proposed review of the Nagaland Liquor Total Prohibition (NLTP) Act 1989. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Firstly, what is the Hornbill Festival?

— The Hornbill Festival, organised by the Nagaland government, is the state’s largest public event. Started in 2000 as an annual tradition, it aims to boost tourism by showcasing Naga heritage and culture, and thus act as a unifying force within the state. The festival acts as an umbrella of the major festivals celebrated by the 14 recognised Naga tribes in the state, each replete with its own traditions and practices. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Previous Weekly Quiz

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